What actually happened, did they restart, play for a bit then the ref blew for full time, then reviewed the goal?
After they reviewed the goal was the play then restarted to replay the time that was played between the restart and the full time whistle?
It's a shame it wasn't a goal that would've kept them in the tournament and they've been knocked out because of it. I wonder if they cried foul when Thierry Henry cheated Ireland out of a World Cup spot in 2009. c*nts.
I presume that VAR was reviewing it the whole time, they have to review every goal don't they? I'd say that the ref thought that there was no issue because it took so long and so restarted the game. If that's the case, it's on the him and the VAR for either not confirming the check was complete or the VAR not communicating that it was still reviewing.
So the ref restarts play with a kick-off in the centre circle, and, about 3 seconds later, blows for full time. General collapsing / clapping on the back ensures depending on what shirt your're wearing. Then the ref blows again touches his ear, does the Mia Wallace "Don't be a Square!" thingy with his arms and starts jogging to the screen.
Technical aspects of rules bookkeeping aside, it looks like a worse decision every time I watch it:
Griezman is a clear 2m off when the ball is hit. He makes no movement towards the incoming ball, turns and walks/jogs back a metre or so towards his own goal as the ball comes in. Randal Muani (12) is the nearest French player to the ball, is onside and jumps to contest the header side-by-side with the Tunisia defender. It's clear that Muani would have had an opportunity to play the ball had the defender not contessted it.
When the defender heads the ball Griezmann is now 1m onside and hits a half-volley across the keeper into the far corner.
Claiming that the defender only tried to play the ball because Griezmann was nearby and interfering is clearly incorrect because Muani would have had a better chance to play the ball and score.
So now the interpretation comes down to how you define "has to be in control of the ball". Does a stronger header mean he controlled the ball if it falls to a different French player who then scores? Or does the challenge from an onside player mean he wasn't in control of the ball making Griezmann's offside relevant again?
Frankly I don't care France lost, it didn't change the group standings but it could have and may in the future.